The BOD analyzes various aspects of the examination and revises the passing standard for the same every three years. It is done to ensure that the candidates passing the test are capable enough to carry out safe and efficient nursing practices. Computerized Adaptive Testing or CAT is a type of online exam evaluation that uses the latest computer technology to enhance the efficiency of the examination process. In CAT, all the candidates get different questions based on their ability, and it is mandatory to answer all the questions.
The next item appears on the screen based on the answer to the previous question. For instance, if you are answering the questions correctly, you will receive more difficult items as per your ability.
On the other hand, if you are incorrect, the next item will be comparatively easy. Easy items are the questions for the low-ability candidates appearing for the NCLEX-PN exam that are displayed on the screen one after the other when you are not answering correctly during CAT. On the contrary, difficult items appear on the computer screen during the test to be attempted by the high-ability candidates as they are answering the previous ones right along with maintaining a competency level above the passing standard.
Also, the passing or failing of the applicants appearing for the examination is determined based on the following three concepts:. As the examination is based on CAT, you have to answer every question. On the other hand, if you answer it right, the next one may be a bit difficult. Yes, it is mandatory that your full name should be same on ATT and the identity proof you will be providing at the examination center. If not, you have to carry the original legal name-change documents on the spot, like a marriage license or divorce decree, having your first and last names written in Roman characters.
The ID proofs that will be accepted include any government-issued, non-expired identification having your signature, recent photograph, and name:. Also, you will have to submit the exam fee again for reappearing in the future.
Once submitted, the registration fee is not returned under any circumstances. The aspirants are allowed to cancel or reschedule their test within the validation of ATT for 90 days. Alternate questions or items are the questions in the NCLEX-PN test that are different from the general four-choice or multiple choice questions.
First-time international educated candidates came from the Philippines, India, Puerto Rico, Kenya, Nepal and other countries. Some universities boast high pass rates as a possible indication of the value of their program. NCLEX needs to receive notice of eligibility from your nursing regulatory board within days to proceed with examination.
Fifteen of these are pretest items that are not scored. The time includes tutorial, sample questions and all breaks. Study methods may help you prepare for the exam and gain a better score. Information on NCLEX fees, questions and other information found on this page was last retrieved as of September Laws and regulations that affect nurses vary across the United States and change often.
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NCSBN supports its members in their mission to assure that only competent, licensed nurses practice, providing the best quality care to you and your loved ones. Sign In. The world leader in nursing regulatory knowledge National Council of State Boards of Nursing NCSBN is an independent, not-for-profit organization through which nursing regulatory bodies act and counsel together on matters of common interest and concern affecting public health, safety and welfare, including the development of nursing licensure examinations.
Correct Response: D According to Erik Erikson, a developmental psychologist, the preschool child is challenged with initiative, the development of confidence and a sense of purpose. The other age groups along the life span and their developmental tasks are listed below: Infant: Trust Toddler: Autonomy, self control and will power School Age Child: Industry, self-confidence and competency Adolescent: Identity formation and a sense of self Young Adult: Intimacy, affection and love Middle Aged Adult: Generativity, productivity and concern about others Older Adults: Ego integrity, wisdom and satisfaction with life.
The embryonic period during pregnancy takes place from: Weeks 1 to Weeks 1 to Weeks 3 to 5. Weeks 6 to Correct Response: D The embryonic period begins around week 6, following the ovulation period of weeks 1 to 2 and the cell division and implantation period from weeks 3 to 5.
Place these human needs in order from the greatest priority to the least priority using 1 as the greatest priority and 5 as the least of all in terms of priority. Correct Response: E,C,D,A,B According to Abraham Maslow, the hierarchy of human needs from the most basic and necessary to the least priority are the physiological or biological needs, the safety and psychological needs, the need for love and belonging, self esteem and the esteem by others and self actualization.
During which week does the fetal heart begin pumping its own blood? Which of the following is a vector of infection? Correct Response: D An infectious fly is an example of a vector that can transmit infection. Which oral disorder appears as yellow or white spots on the oral mucosa that are not possible to scrape off without bleeding? Correct Response: B Oral candidiasis is characterized with yellow or white spots on the oral mucosa that are not possible to scrape off without bleeding, therefore, no attempts to remove these spots should be done.
Which type of cancer has the poorest prognosis? Correct Response: C Of all of the above types of cancer, it is pancreatic cancer that has the poorest prognosis.
States throughout our nation vary somewhat in terms of things that nursing assistants can and cannot legally do. Which statements about these state to state differences are accurate? Nursing assistants can change catheter tubings but not catheters Nursing assistants can change sterile dressings Nursing assistants have an expanding role in many states.
Nursing assistants cannot assess the physical status of the patients. Nursing assistants can apply topical medication lotions to intact skin.
The trend is moving toward nurses only staffing patterns. Correct Response: C,D Nursing assistants have an expanding role in many states. A cesarean mode of delivery, often utilized for various reasons, is the most common mode for females with which pelvic type? Correct Response: D The typical newborns skull will consist of two frontal bones, two parietal bones, and an occipital bone for 5 total bones.
Your patient has just returned from the diagnostic imaging department and the doctor has told the patient that they have a Mallory-Weiss tear. The patient asks you what a Mallory-Weiss tear is. How should you respond to this patient? You have been asked to speak at a new nursing assistants' orientation class about infection control and handwashing techniques. What would you include in this teaching? Demonstrate the correct one minute handwashing procedure using soap and running water.
Demonstrate the correct 2 minute handwashing procedure using soap and running water. Using hot water so that the natural fats on the skins are emulsified with the soap.
Using cold water so that the natural fats on the skins are emulsified with the soap. Correct Response: B The best way to teach the techniques of handwashing is to actually demonstrate the correct handwashing procedure. How many minims are contained in 1 milliliter?
Periwound maceration occurs when: The skin around the wound softens and is damaged. Selecting a dressing individualized to the type of wound. The skin around the wound dries out and hardens. Correct Response: A Periwound maceration, also classified as moisture associated skin damage, is the softening of the skin and damaging of connective fibers which leads to the wound drying out and hardening.
Which patient is at greatest risk for cholelithiasis and choledocholithiasis? Correct Response: B The 70 year old female patient who has liver disease is at the greatest risk because the female gender, advancing age and the liver disease are known risk factors for cholelithiasis and choledocholithiasis.
Select the method of special precautions that is accurately paired with the personal protective equipment that is minimally required in order to prevent the spread of infection. Correct Response: B The minimal personal protective equipment that is required for droplet precautions is a face mask.
Which of these patients is affected with a healthcare acquired infection? Correct Response: A The 18 year old male patient who developed a intravenous line infection two days after insertion is affected with a healthcare related, or nosocomial, infection.
Correct Response: B The incubation, prodromal, illness and convalescence stages are the stages of infection in correct sequential order. What is the single most important thing that nurses do in order to prevent the spread of infection?
Correct Response: Handwashing is the single, most important thing that nurses, and other healthcare professionals, can do in order to prevent the spread of infection. Rh negative maternal blood indicates: An incompatibility in the blood between the mother and fetus.
The mother will require a blood transfusion at the time of delivery. The mother does not have a specific marker on her red blood cells. Correct Response: A Low birth weight LBW is considered to be a birth weight of less than 2, grams regardless of gestational age. You are caring for a neonate who has a cleft palate. You should inform the mother that surgical correction will be done when the infant is: 8 to 12 months of age.
Correct Response: A Repairs of cleft palates are typically done before 12 months because this allows for palatal changes associated with normal growth to occur. What percentage of term newborns has a congenital heart disease due to environmental risk factors such as maternal alcoholism or drug ingestion? Who should document care? The LPNs should document the care that they provided and the care that was given by unlicensed assistive staff.
The registered nurse must document all of the care that is provided by the nursing assistants because they are accountable for all care. All staff members should document all of the care that they have provided. All staff should document all of the care that they have provided but the registered nurse, as the only independent practitioner, signs it. Correct Response: C All staff members, including unlicensed assistive staff like nursing assistants, document and sign, all of the care that they have personally provided.
Your 54 year old male HIV positive patient has just expired. How should you care for this deceased patient? Bathe the patient but it is no longer necessary to use standard precautions because the patient is deceased. Place the patient in an negative pressure isolated area of the morgue. Double shroud the patient to prevent the spread of infection. Bathe the patient using the same standard precautions you used when he was alive.
Correct Response: D You should bathe your patient as part of post mortem care using the same standard precautions that you did when the patient was alive. Select the types of pain that are accurately coupled with an example of it. Select all that are correct. Correct Response: B,E,F A spinal cord injury is an example of an injury that leads to central neuropathic pain; the central nervous system is comprised of the brain and the spinal cord.
Select the stage of viral hepatitis that is accurately paired with its characteristic s. Correct Response: C During the preicteric stage of viral hepatitis, elevated urine bilirubin levels, nausea, chills, anorexia, fever and mild upper right quadrant pain occur.
Which nursing diagnosis is the most commonly used among patients who are affected with fibromyalgia? Correct Response: A The signs and symptoms of fibromyalgia include widespread aching, muscle stiffness, fatigue and sleep disorders. Alcohol, caffeine, or drugs are high risk factors that all fall under which broad classification of risk factors?
Correct Response: D Psychosocial risk factors include life style choices like the use or abuse of alcohol, caffeine and illicit drugs in addition to smoking and psychological status. Multifetal pregnancies with triplets occur at a rate of 1 in 8, births, but twins occur much more frequently with a rate of: 1 in 85 births.
Correct Response: A Twins, whether monozygotic or dizygotic, occur at the rate of about 1 in every 85 births. When a woman has miscarried in three or more consecutive pregnancies, it is referred to as which type of spontaneous abortion?
Correct Response: C When a woman has miscarried in three or more consecutive pregnancies, it is referred to as habitual abortions.
Your long term care patient has chronic pain and at this point in time the patient needs increasing dosages to adequately control this pain. What is this patient most likely to be affected with? Correct Response: D Patients with chronic pain are often affected with drug tolerance. The normal sodium level in the body is: to milliequivalents.
Correct Response: A The normal sodium level in the body is from to milliequivalents, not from to microequivalents. Which type of practice is most similar to research based practice? Select the ethical principles that are paired with their description. You are caring for a patient with multiple-trauma.
Of all of these injuries and conditions, it the most serious? Correct Response: A A deviated trachea is a serious life threatening condition.
Which statement about appendicitis is accurate and true? Appendicitis is more common among females than males. A high fiber diet is a risk factor associated with appendicitis. Left lower quadrant pain is suggestive of appendicitis. Which skin disorder most closely resembles and mimics dandruff?
Correct Response: A Lice infestation with nits most closely resembles and mimics dandruff. You have just learned that another nurse was fired for taking photographs of patients without their permission using a cell phone and posting them on Face book. Correct Response: A This nurse was fired because the nurse has violated a federal law, namely, the U. Which atrioventricular heart block is also referred to as Mobitz II? Correct Response: A Third-degree atrioventricular heart block is also referred to as Mobitz II; this type of heart block occurs when the AV node impulses are blocked as they try to reach the ventricles.
Which preventive measure can be employed to decrease the risk of compartment syndrome? Correct Response: B A bivalve cast, rather than a solid fiberglass or plaster of Paris cast, for a skeletal fracture can prevent limb threatening compartment syndrome. Which patient is at greatest risk for papilledema? Correct Response: D Patients, including adolescents, with a closed head injury is at greatest risk for papilledema because closed head injuries lead to an increase in intracranial pressure which leads to papilledema.
Your patient has been diagnosed with orchititis. What information about this disorder should you inform the patient about? This disorder often occurs as the result of a streptococcus. This disorder can be symptomatically treated with ice. This disorder can be symptomatically treated with heat. This disorder is typically treated with surgery. Correct Response: B The pain associated with orchiditis, an inflammation of the testicles, is symptomatically treated with the application of ice, not heat, to the groin area.
Which cardiac arrhythmia can be either acquired or congenital and can spontaneously disappear on its own or lead to ventricular fibrillation? Correct Response: C Torsades de pointes, a polymorphic ventricular tachycardia, can be either congenital or acquired; at times, it can spontaneously terminate but it frequently leads to ventricular fibrillation. Which quality assurance or performance improvement technique is used to identify underlying process flaws?
Correct Response: B Root cause analysis is a quality assurance or performance improvement technique that is used to identify the underlying, root causes of a problem. Correct Response: C Advance medical care directives, also referred to as living wills, contain the wishes of the client in terms of treatments and interventions that they do and do not want carried out when they are no longer able to competently provide these consents and rejections of treatment.
Select the stage of a pressure ulcer that is accurately pair with its characteristics. Stage I: Only slight blanching when pressure is applied to the skin. Stage II: The epidermis and part of the dermis is damaged or lost. Stage III: The wound has slough and eschar. Stage IV: The loss of skin usually exposes some fat. You have been assigned to care for a neonate who has been diagnosed with the Tetralogy of Fallot. The mother asks you what the Tetralogy of Fallot is.
How should you respond to this mother? Correct Response: B The Tetralogy of Fallot is a congenital cardiac disorder that is classified as a cyanotic, rather than acyanotic, congenital heart disorder that is characterized with abnormal cardiac anomalies. The protrusion of an internal organ through a wound or surgical incision is referred to as: Serosanguineous.
Correct Response: C Evisceration, or the protrusion of an organ through a wound, most often occurs in the abdominal wall. Which pain assessment scale is used exclusively for infants and neonates from 32 weeks of gestation to six months of age?
Which of the following is a hazard of immobility? Correct Response: A One of the hazards of immobility is the loss of calcium from the bones that results from non weight bearing by the immobilized patient. Correct Response: C Prolactin is a protein that is best known for its role in enabling females to produce milk, but it also has other functions, such as regulating the immune system. Which of the following is a life threatening acute complication of diabetes mellitus?
Correct Response: B Hypoglycemia is an acute complication of diabetes which can be life threatening. Sutures and staples are typically removed following surgery within: 7 to 10 days if healing is considered adequate. Correct Response: A Sutures and staples can be removed within 7 to 10 days if healing has been sufficient and while this removal tends to reduce the amount of dressing supplies needed after removal, a light dressing may still be necessary.
Which of these breath sounds is considered normal and not adventitious? Correct Response: A Vesicular breath sounds are normal breath sounds. Which type of burn leads to the greatest degree of pain? Correct Response: B Although the first degree burn can cause pain, it is the second degree burn that is the most painful of all. Babies should double their birth weight by the: 5th to 6th month. Correct Response: C Most babies should have doubled their birth weight by 6 months, but many may have doubled their birth weight by 5 months of age.
Which of the following is best for a client who has difficulty swallowing and chokes frequently? A liquid diet. Tilting the head back when swallowing. Tucking the chin in when swallowing.
Following each bite with a drink of water. Correct Response: C The client should tuck the chin when swallowing rather than tilting the head back. How long can women lactate for? Correct Response: A A woman can lactate indefinitely; however, it puts them at risk of developing osteoporosis due to the calcium depletion from the bones and teeth.
Which anatomic malformations are associated with the Tetralogy of Fallot? Correct Response: D The Tetralogy of Fallot consists of a sub-aortic septal defect, an overriding aorta, right, not left, ventricular hypertrophy, and right, not left, ventricular outflow. Your 32 year old female patient has erythema marginatum, Sydenham chorea, epistaxis, abdominal pain, fever, cardiac problems and skin nodules.
What disorder would you most likely suspect based on these signs and symptoms? Correct Response: D Erythema marginatum, Sydenham chorea, epistaxis, abdominal pain, fever, cardiac problems and skin nodules are the signs and symptoms of rheumatoid arthritis. Select the cranial nerve that is accurately paired with its name. Correct Response: B The twelfth cranial nerve is the hypoglossal nerve.
The other 11 of the 12 cranial nerves and their functions are listed below: Olfactory Nerve: Transmits the sense of smell Optic Nerve: Transmits visual signals from the retina of the eye to the brain Oculomotor Nerve: Controls most eye movements Trochlear Nerve: Moves the eyeballs Trigeminal Nerve: Innervates the chewing muscles Abducens Nerve: Eye abduction Facial Nerve: Controls facial expressions, the lacrimal glands, the salivary glands and other muscles.
Acoustic Nerve: Gravity, sound and rotation sensations Glossopharyngeal Nerve: Senses taste Vagus Nerve: It innervates the laryngeal and pharyngeal muscles and controls voice resonance and swallowing. Spinal Accessory Nerve: It innervates the trapezius and sternocleidomastoid muscles. What is the name of the section marked:. Correct Response: F Pulmonary artery.
Round off these numbers to the nearest hundredth. Fill in the blanks. Correct Response: A: 5. Label the following bones of the pelvis:. Round off these numbers to the nearest tenth: 5. The doctor has ordered mg of a medication po once a day. How many tablets will you administer to your patient? Correct Response: B This problem is set up and calculated as shown below.
Which patient is exercising their right to autonomy in the context of patient rights? An 86 year old female who remains independent in terms of the activities of daily living. An unemancipated 16 year old who chooses to not have an intravenous line. A 32 year old who does not need the help of the nurse to bathe and groom themselves. A 99 year old who wants CPR despite the fact that the nurse and doctor do not think that it would be successful.
Correct Response: D The 99 year old who wants CPR despite the fact that the nurse and doctor do not think that it would be successful is exercising their right to autonomy. Autonomy means that all competent clients have the right to make their own decisions without any coercion or interference even if any or all of their healthcare providers do not agree with this decision. Autonomy is self determination and, in the context of the activities of daily living, autonomy is not related to independence, but only independence in terms of decision making.
Lastly, informed legal consents and refusals for treatments, like an intravenous line, is reserved only for those who are not minors and minors who have been emancipated. You are performing a neurological assessment of your adolescent patient. The patient has the Moro reflex. How should you interpret this neurological assessment finding? It is normal among adolescents. It indicates that the patient has an intact peripheral nervous system.
It indicates that the patient has an intact central nervous system. It is not a normal finding.
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